Right in what sense? As it stands it could be argued that the 1982 ruling applies here. But I’m not talking about the 1982 ruling. Is the notion that “oh no past presidents could be prosecuted for anything” such a bad thing? Is that what you agree with him with?

Right in what sense?
As it stands it could be argued that the 1982 ruling applies here.
But I’m not talking about the 1982 ruling. Is the notion that “oh no past presidents could be prosecuted for anything” such a bad thing? Is that what you agree with him with?
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