Islam’s philosophy about politics is simple. If you want to equate Nazi ideology (which is political) with Islamic political ideology (which would be a fair set to compare), you won’t get too far with Islamic political ideology. They don’t really have one.
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You want simon to entirely condemn an ideology. But what if portions of that ideology are agreeable? By condemning it entirely, would one not then be going against one’s own beliefs where they agree?
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If I condemn the whole,do not all of the parts get condemned with it?
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Sounds like picking the cherries you like from the tree (3D) then burning down the tree.
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So causation: Let me get your thinking clear in my head: Here’s what you seem to imply:
a) There are basic human concepts that are presumably Universal
b) That Islam *happens to* share some of these universal concepts means they did not originate from Islam
c) because they did not originate from Islam, condemning islam does not eliminate those redeemable aspects of Islam because they did not come from Islam.
[I know that is a 2D explanation but I’m keeping it basic]
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Byzantium was a functional theocracy of sorts, although they still had a division of secular and religion, just not in an excluded-middle way but more of a synergetic /mutualist way.
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You’ve never seen my cat adore me. If I’m not the closest thing to a god to her, I don’t know what is. [it can be annoying to be worshipped btw]
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