Can you see the nuance of difference there?

My quibble would be the assumption that the classical greek texts weren’t used by the Greeks nor taught by the Greeks.

Rather, I would say, until the Arabs began to ADVANCE the works of the ancient Greeks, they remains quite literally “Status Quo” for BOTH cultures.

Can you see the nuance of difference there?

Then again, there was the Library of Alexandria. But that was destroyed by Caesar, Aurelian, Coptic hierarch Theophilus [although given the time-frame, I tend to think that’s account is part of a smear campaign from that time period, but it’s possible], or the “Muslim Conquest of Egypt” in the 7th century (whose account could also have been a smear campaign)… depending what view you take.

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