But since you’re not interested in US Law or the Constitution but rather an academic debate over of vs from, I’ll change contexts.

I SUPPOSE I could take a common-usage direction and provide a proof. There’s a legitimate distinction between “of” and “from” – quite obviously so, otherwise why would anybody care which one was used vs the other?

But since you’re not interested in US Law or the Constitution but rather an academic debate over of vs from, I’ll change contexts.

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